Say Company A is a large company that owns 10 smaller companies (call them companies 1-10).
All of the smaller companies have their own brand and their own customer base and they are all ultimately owned by Company A and in Company A's "umbrella".
If I am a customer of company 1, can company 2,3,4,etc. or whichever legally solicit their products to me even though I have not purchased, agreed, signed up, etc. to any other of those companies?
I can't really think of a great analogy off the top of my head but basically can one company solicit to another companies customers/clients legally if both said companies are owned under one family company?
All of the smaller companies have their own brand and their own customer base and they are all ultimately owned by Company A and in Company A's "umbrella".
If I am a customer of company 1, can company 2,3,4,etc. or whichever legally solicit their products to me even though I have not purchased, agreed, signed up, etc. to any other of those companies?
I can't really think of a great analogy off the top of my head but basically can one company solicit to another companies customers/clients legally if both said companies are owned under one family company?
